Biyernes, Mayo 26, 2023

grade 12 QUARTER 1 EXAMINATION

 

Question 1

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The possible solution to the problem, recommendations, and alternatives to the problem is found in this box.

a.

input

b.

output

c.

process

d.

result

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Question 2

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Are uncontrolled variables that can cause unintended changes between groups.

a.

Confounding Variables

b.

Extraneous Variables 

c.

Independent Variables 

d.

Dependent Variable

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Question 3

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What is the 9th part of the "Flow Chart of the Research Process"?

a.

Review of Related Literature

b.

Data Processing and Statistical Treatment

c.

Summary, Conclusions, and Recommendations

d.

Analysis and Interpretation

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Question 4

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It is a systematic process of gathering intellectual data using inquiry, experimentation, and investigation.

a.

observation

b.

experiment

c.

research

d.

survey

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Question 5

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The research which is done for knowledge enhancement.

a.

Quantitative Research

b.

Applied Research

c.

Basic Research

d.

Qualitative Research

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Question 6

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It covers the Research Methodology.

a.

Chapter IV

b.

Chapter I

c.

Chapter II

d.

Chapter III

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Question 7

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Also Referred to as Statistical Treatment.

a.

Process

b.

Objectives

c.

 Introduction

d.

Theory

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Question 8

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It addresses the purpose of the project/paper.

a.

Introduction

b.

Process

c.

Objectives

d.

Theory

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Question 9

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One of the criteria in selecting a research problem is a question raised for inquiry. Another criterion is that it should be significant and relevant to the field.

a.

Both statements are true.

b.

First statement is false, second statement is true.

c.

Both statements are false.

d.

First statement is true, second statement is false.

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Question 10

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“What are the differences between freshmen, sophomore, junior, and senior students’ attitudes toward the mandated high school drug testing program?” This sentence is an example:

a.

Statements and Questions

b.

Hypothesis

c.

General Research Problem

d.

RRL

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Question 11

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According to him, “True genius resides in the capacity for evaluation of uncertain, hazardous, and conflicting information.

a.

David Cameron

b.

Winston Churchill

c.

Abraham Lincoln

d.

John F. Kennedy

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Question 12

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Shows the relationship, impact, correlates, and effect between and among variables in the study.

a.

Introduction

b.

Relational Framework

c.

Evaluative Framework

d.

Background of the Study

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Question 13

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It covers the Review of the Related Literature and Studies.

a.

Chapter II

b.

Chapter III

c.

Chapter IV

d.

Chapter I

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Question 14

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What is the 3rd part of the "Flow Chart of the Research Process."

a.

Hypothesis

b.

Assumptions

c.

Problems/Objectives

d.

Theoretical/Conceptual Framework

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Question 15

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Variables of a situation in which results of an experiment can be attributed to either the operation of an Independent Variable or an extraneous variable.

a.

Confounding Variables

b.

Dependent Variable

c.

Independent Variables

d.

Extraneous Variables 

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Question 16

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The need to communicate what will be studied in clear, concise, and ________ terms.

a.

unidentified

b.

unambiguous

c.

unsimplified

d.

unclarified

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Question 17

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An idea that is suggested or presented as possibly true but is not known or proven to true.

a.

Introduction

b.

Process

c.

Theory

d.

Objectives

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Question 18

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Also known as the “bound”. It is the part that explains where you drew the line on doing any further research.

a.

Limitations

b.

Scope

c.

Definition of Terms

d.

Significance of the Study

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Question 19

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What is the 10th part of the "Flow Chart of the Research Process"?

a.

Data Processing and Statistical Treatment

b.

Summary, Conclusions, and Recommendations

c.

Review of Related Literature

d.

 Analysis and Interpretation

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Question 20

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If printed outside of the country, they are _______ regardless of the citizenship of the author. 

a.

foreign

b.

Related Studies

c.

 local

d.

Related Literature

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Question 21

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A concept, illustration, or diagram is used by the researcher to present the ideas of the study and show the relationship of the variables.

a.

Conceptual Framework

b.

Research Problem

c.

Hypothesis

d.

Theoretical Framework

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Question 22

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A discussion on the setting of the problem, the previous efforts taken to solve related problems, and the rationale underlying the choice of a particular area of investigation.

a.

Background of the Study

b.

Introduction

c.

Relational Framework

d.

Evaluative Framework

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Question 23

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Has small sample size and often in natural setting.

a.

Applied Research

b.

Qualitative Research

c.

Quantitative Research

d.

Basic Research

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Question 24

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Discusses the theory upon which the study is to be based.

a.

Conceptual Framework

b.

Theoretical Framework

c.

Research Problem

d.

Hypothesis

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Question 25

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If printed in the Philippines, they are ______.

a.

foreign

b.

Related Studies

c.

local

d.

Related Literature

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Question 26

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Imply the possibilities of empirical investigation. 

a.

Independent Variables 

b.

Non-researchable Problems

c.

Researchable Problems

d.

Dependent Variable

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Question 27

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This part includes the conceptual and operational definitions of important terms as used in the study.

a.

Definition of Terms

b.

Limitations

c.

Scope

d.

Significance of the Study

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Question 28

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An empirical investigation or a phenomenon via statistical mathematical and computational techniques.

a.

Basic Research

b.

Applied Research

c.

Quantitative Research

d.

Qualitative Research

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Question 29

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This research aims to improve the human condition.

a.

Qualitative Research

b.

Applied Research

c.

Basic Research

d.

Quantitative Research

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Question 30

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What is the 6th part of the "Flow Chart of the Research Process"?

a.

Data Processing and Statistical Treatment

b.

Research Design

c.

Data Collection

d.

Review of Related Literature

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Question 31

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Are “changing or characteristics” of persons or things like age, gender, intelligence, ideas, achievements, confidence, and so on that are involved in your research study.

a.

Operational Definition

b.

 Conceptual

c.

Aptitude

d.

Variables

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Question 32

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A statement about an area of concern, a condition to be improved, a difficulty to be eliminated, or a troubling question that exists in scholarly literature, in theory, or in practice that points to the need for meaningful understanding and deliberate investigation.

a.

Conceptual Framework

b.

Theoretical Framework

c.

Research Problem

d.

Hypothesis

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Question 33

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“The purpose of this study is to investigate the attitude of the high school students to the mandated drug testing programs” This sentence is an example of:

a.

Statements and Questions

b.

General Research Problem

c.

Hypothesis

d.

RRL

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Question 34

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What is the 5th part of the "Flow Chart of the Research Process"?

a.

Data Processing and Statistical Treatment

b.

Data Collection

c.

Research Design

d.

Review of Related Literature

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Question 35

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Are inquiries, investigations, researches already conducted to which your proposed study is related or has some bearing. 

a.

local

b.

Related Literature

c.

Related Studies

d.

foreign

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Question 36

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What is the maximum number of required pages in undergraduate theses?

a.

 5

b.

15

c.

10

d.

20

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Question 37

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You can locate those sources from libraries, either government, school, or other private libraries. You can locate those sources from government and private offices.

a.

Both statements are false.

b.

First statement is false, second statement is true.

c.

First statement is true, second statement is false.

d.

Both statements are true.

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Question 38

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Data collection methods vary using the unstructured or semi-structured techniques.

a.

Applied Research

b.

Basic Research

c.

Quantitative Research

d.

Qualitative Research

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Question 39

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The review should make a critical evaluation of the studies and examine the appropriateness of their research designs to the present study. The review level of support or otherwise that they lend to one’s own hypothesis/theory.

a.

Both statements are true.

b.

First statement is false, second statement is true.

c.

First statement is true, second statement is false.

d.

Both statements are false.

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Question 40

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What is the 1st part of the "Flow Chart of the Research Process."

a.

Hypothesis

b.

Problems/Objectives

c.

Theoretical/Conceptual Framework

d.

Assumptions

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Question 41

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Evaluate the input, process, and output.

a.

Relational Framework

b.

Introduction

c.

Evaluative Framework

d.

Background of the Study

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Question 42

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Variables that the experimenter/researcher purposely manipulates.

a.

Non-researchable Problems 

b.

Dependent Variable

c.

Independent Variables 

d.

Researchable Problems

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Question 43

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Research proposal should always take a _______________ not unless the study is done.

a.

hypothesis

b.

output

c.

null hypothesis

d.

input

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Question 44

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Has a large sample size to produce generalizable results.

a.

Basic Research

b.

Applied Research

c.

Qualitative Research

d.

Quantitative Research

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Question 45

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The definition uses words or concepts to define a variable.

a.

Aptitude

b.

Operational Definition

c.

Variables

d.

Conceptual

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Question 46

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What is the 7th part of the "Flow Chart of the Research Process"?

a.

Data Collection

b.

Research Design

c.

Review of Related Literature

d.

Data Processing and Statistical Treatment

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Question 47

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What is the minimum required pages in undergraduate theses?

a.

20

b.

15

c.

5

d.

10

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Question 48

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Is a response or behavior that is measured. 

a.

Non-researchable Problems

b.

Researchable Problems

c.

Dependent Variable

d.

Independent Variables

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Question 49

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One’s capability for performing a particular task or skill.

a.

Operational Definition

b.

Conceptual

c.

Variables

d.

Aptitude

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Question 50

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It is also called pure and fundamental research.

a.

Applied Research

b.

Basic Research

c.

Qualitative Research

d.

Quantitative Research

Quantitative Research

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Question 51

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What is the maximum number of required pages in graduate studies?

a.

15

b.

10

c.

5

d.

20

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Question 52

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Is simply exploratory research. It is used to acquire an understanding of underlying reasons, opinions, and motivations.

a.

Qualitative Research

b.

Applied Research

c.

Quantitative Research

d.

Basic Research

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Question 53

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Research is designed to solve practical problems of the modern world, rather than to acquire knowledge for knowledge's sake.

a.

Qualitative Research

b.

Quantitative Research

c.

Basic Research

d.

Applied Research

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Question 54

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One of the reasons for citation is a defense against plagiarism. One of the reasons for citation is to acknowledge indebtedness.

a.

First statement is true, second statement is false.

b.

Both statements are false.

c.

Both statements are true.

d.

First statement is false, second statement is true.

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Question 55

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Tentative statements about a given problem that serves as a tentative answer to one or more of the research question and are subjected to a statistical test.

a.

Theoretical Framework

b.

Conceptual Framework

c.

Research Problem

d.

Hypothesis

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Question 56

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It covers the Presentation, Interpretation, and Analysis of Data.


a.

Chapter I

b.

Chapter III

c.

Chapter IV

d.

Chapter II

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Question 57

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What is the 8th part in the "Flow Chart of the Research Process"?

a.

Review of Related Literature

b.

Data Processing and Statistical Treatment

c.

Data Collection

d.

Research Design

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Question 58

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It is the focus of the study.

a.

 Theory

b.

Process

c.

Objectives

d.

Introduction

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Question 59

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Why do we search again?

a.

To amend new discoveries.

b.

All of the above.

c.

To modify or increase stock knowledge.

d.

To reaffirm results of previous works.

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Question 60

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It covers the Summary, Findings and Conclusions of the Study.

a.

Chapter V

b.

Chapter II

c.

Chapter I

d.

Chapter III

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Question 61

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The research does not have immediate commercial potential.

a.

Qualitative Research

b.

Applied Research

c.

Quantitative Research

d.

Basic Research

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Question 62

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What is the 4th part of the "Flow Chart of the Research Process"?

a.

Hypothesis

b.

Problems/Objectives

c.

Assumptions

d.

Theoretical/Conceptual Framework

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Question 63

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This portion indicates the need for the study and its possible applications and utilizations.

a.

Limitations

b.

Scope

c.

Definition of Terms

d.

Significance of the Study

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Question 64

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Used to quantify the problem by way of generating numerical data or data that can be transformed into usable statistics.

a.

Qualitative Research

b.

Basic Research

c.

Applied Research

d.

Quantitative Research

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Question 65

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What is the 2nd part of the "Flow Chart of the Research Process"?

a.

Assumptions

b.

Hypothesis

c.

Theoretical/Conceptual Framework

d.

Problems/Objectives

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Question 66

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Include explanations of how to do something, vague propositions, and value-based concerns.

a.

 Dependent Variable

b.

Independent Variables

c.

Researchable Problems

d.

Non-researchable Problems 

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Question 67

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It covers the Problem and its Background.

a.

Chapter II

b.

Chapter I

c.

Chapter IV

d.

Chapter III

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Question 68

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This is where we put the variable/s to be investigated in the study, the Statement of the Problem, which serves as the objective of the paper that needs to be answered or solved, or the Theories related to the topic.

a.

result

b.

process

c.

output

d.

input

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Question 69

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It defines the exact boundaries of the investigation as they relate to the nature of information necessary for the study and the feasibility of obtaining them.

a.

Scope

b.

Significance of the Study

c.

Definition of Terms

d.

Limitations

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Question 70

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It consists of discussions of facts and principles to which your study is related. 

a.

Related Literature

b.

foreign

c.

Related Studies

d.

local

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Question 71

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The part of the diagram shows the steps/methods on how to gather the needed data for the study as well as on how to interpret the data gathered.

a.

 output

b.

input

c.

process

d.

result

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Question 72

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_________ provides a list of relevant materials gleaned from other sources in writing a research paper or other writings done in academic or professional contexts. 

a.

Experimentation

b.

Collaboration

c.

Documentation

d.

Preparation

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Question 73

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Is an indication of (something) the meaning of a variable through the specification of the manner by which it is measured, categorized, or controlled.

a.

Variables

b.

Aptitude

c.

Conceptual

d.

Operational Definition

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Question 74

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Provides the overview or the macro-view of what the research will be about.

a.

Relational Framework

b.

Introduction

c.

Background of the Study

d.

Evaluative Framework

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Question 75

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It is also known as Action Research.

a.

Applied Research

b.

Basic Research

c.

Qualitative Research

d.

Quantitative Research

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Question 1

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According to XYZ balance sheet, the accounts payable was Php50,000 and annual credit purchases amounted to Php250,000. What is the payable turnover?
Select one:
a.
73.00
b.
0.49
c.
0.73
d.
5.00

Question 2

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Preference shares are unsecured promissory note issued by a firm to raise funds to meet short-term debt obligations.
Select one:
 

Question 3

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He is accountable for the accounting operations of the company.
Select one:
a.
Chief Financial Officer
b.
Controller
c.
Operations Manager
d.
Treasurer

Question 4

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This budget contains all manufacturing costs other than the costs of direct materials and direct labor.
Select one:
a.
Manufacturing overhead budget
b.
Direct materials budget
c.
Production budget
d.
Sales budget

Question 5

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Which situation is an example of indirect financing?
Select one:
a.
John bought stocks of Choca Loka Company
b.
Challa went to Western Union and have her US dollar currencies converted into Philippine peso.
c.
Ben engaged in online buying of fixed income securities
d.
Aimee borrowed money from a bank

Question 6

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If Debt to Equity ratio is 1:2 or 0.50 and Total Equity is Php500,000, what is the amount of Total Debt?
Select one:
a.
Php 250,000
b.
Php 1,000,000
c.
Php 1,500,000
d.
Php 500,000

Question 7

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This part requires choosing ways to achieve your goals. As you achieve your immediate or short-term goals, the goals next in priority will come into focus.
Select one:
a.
Reevaluation and Revision of Plan
b.
Evaluation of Alternatives
c.
Development of financial goals
d.
Creation and implementation of financial action plan

Question 8

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This budget is used to ascertain whether company operations and other activities will provide a sufficient amount of cash to meet projected cash requirements.
Select one:
a.
Financial planning
b.
Projected financial statements
c.
Budgeting
d.
Cash budget

Question 9

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The Chief Financial Officer is responsible of estimating the financial requirement of the business.
Select one:
 

Question 10

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External sources of funds include those sources that lie within an organization.
Select one:
 

Question 11

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This is the maintenance of appropriate level of cash to meet the firm's cash requirements and to maximize income on idle funds.
Select one:
a.
Working capital management
b.
Accounts receivable
c.
Cash management
d.
ABC

Question 12

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________ is needed in the proper cash controlling in purchase of raw materials or goods, payment of salaries and wages, coping with daily expenses and providing credit obligations.
Select one:
a.
Working capital management
b.
Cash management
c.
Accounts receivable
d.
ABC

Question 13

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According to XYZ balance sheet, the accounts payable was Php50,000 and annual credit purchases amounted to Php250,000. Average payment period?
Select one:
a.
0.73
b.
5.00
c.
0.49
d.
73.00

Question 14

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If a business entity has a larger current assets than its current liabilities, the entity has _______ working capital.
Select one:
a.
Negative
b.
Positive
c.
Current liabilities
d.
Inventory management

Question 15

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This includes budgets for direct material, direct labor and manufacturing overhead.
Select one:
a.
Sales budget
b.
Selling and administrative expense budget
c.
Direct materials budget
d.
Production budget

Question 16

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Which does not belong to the group?
Select one:
a.
Insurance Companies
b.
Savings and Loan Associations
c.
Investment banks
d.
Credit Unions

Question 17

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This may be defined as a contractual arrangement in which a party owning an asset provides the asset for use to another, the right to use the assets to the user over a certain period of time, for consideration in form of periodic payment, with or without a further payment.
Select one:
a.
Public deposits
b.
Factoring
c.
Debentures
d.
Lease financing

Question 18

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Fixed capital requirement includes resources for paying salaries and wages.
Select one:
 

Question 19

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It is an unsecured promissory note issued by a firm to raise funds to meet short-term debt obligations
Select one:
a.
Public deposits
b.
Factoring
c.
Equity shares
d.
Commercial paper

Question 20

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He is responsible for the safekeeping of cash
Select one:
a.
Treasurer
b.
Controller
c.
Operations Manager
d.
Chief Financial Officer

Question 21

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A Business has a a total sales of Php300,000 and cost of sales of Php100,000. It also incurred operating expenses of Php35,000 and tax worth 30%. If you will make a common size analysis, what will be the percentage of net income after taxes?
Select one:
a.
66.66%
b.
55%
c.
38.50%
d.
11.66%

Question 22

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When classified on the basis of source of generation, which does not belong to the group?
Select one:
a.
Commercial papers
b.
Factoring
c.
Trade credit
d.
Common shares

Question 23

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Which is a internal source of finance?
Select one:
a.
A debt instrument used by large companies to borrow money, at a fixed rate of interest.
b.
Selling of accounts receivable.
c.
Accounts payable to a supplier of goods.
d.
The amount of net earnings not paid out as dividends.

Question 24

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Short term source of finances are those which are required for a period not exceeding one year.
Select one:
 

Question 25

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Which among the following institutions does not have a full banking license or is not supervised by a national or international banking regulatory agency?
Select one:
a.
Investment Banks
b.
Credit Unions
c.
None of these
d.
Commercial Banks

Question 26

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A financial instrument is the written legal obligation of one party to transfer a thing of value, usually money, to another party at some future date, under certain conditions.
Select one:
 

Question 27

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Which is a short term source of financing?
Select one:
a.
Selling of accounts receivable.
b.
The amount of net earnings not paid out as dividends.
c.
A debt instrument used by large companies to borrow money, at a fixed rate of interest.
d.
Loan from a bank

Question 28

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This is also termed as common shares
Select one:
a.
Retained earnings
b.
Trade credit
c.
Loan from banks and financing institutions
d.
Equity shares

Question 29

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The economic order quantity involves determining the optimal order size for an inventory item given its expected usage, carrying costs, and ordering costs.
Select one:
 

Question 30

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Ben is the owner of B-Merchandise. He wants to know the total sales the cost of sales, expenses and net income. What financial statement does he need?
Select one:
a.
Statement of Financial Position
b.
Statement of Cash Flows
c.
Income Statement
d.
Statement of Changes in Equity

Question 31

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This step in financial planning involves the assessment of risks.
Select one:
a.
Development of financial goals
b.
Evaluation of Alternatives
c.
Identification of Alternative Courses of Action
d.
Reevaluation and Revision of Plan

Question 32

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ABC Merchandise has inventories worth Php15,000, cash worth Php20,000, Prepaid expenses worth Php5,000 and equipment worth Php10,000. She has a current liability of Php30,000. How much is the quick ratio?
Select one:
a.
1.33
b.
0.66
c.
5.00
d.
73.00

Question 33

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If current assets is Php100,000 and current liabilities is Php50,000. What is the Net working capital?
Select one:
a.
Php 50,000
b.
Php 100,000
c.
Php 200,000
d.
Php 150,000

Question 34

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This involves proper purchasing of raw material, handling, storing and recording.
Select one:
a.
Positive
b.
Inventory management
c.
Negative
d.
Current liabilities

Question 35

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Finance is the art and science that describes the management, creation and study of money, banking, credit, investments, assets and liabilities.
Select one:
 

Question 36

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A Business has a a total sales of Php300,000 and cost of sales of Php100,000. It also incurred operating expenses of Php35,000 and tax worth 30%. If you will make a common size analysis, what will be the percentage of gross profit?
Select one:
a.
55%
b.
66.66%
c.
11.66%
d.
38.50%

Question 37

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WXY Store paid Php200,000 on inventory bought for the year. The business was able to sell all of the inventory for Php750,000. Business expenses were 30,000 and tax rate is 30%. What is the gross profit margin?
Select one:
a.
5.00
b.
0.49
c.
73.00
d.
0.73

Question 38

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Which of the following statements is wrong?
Select one:
a.
The finance manager must carefully select best investment alternatives and consider the reasonable and stable return from the investment.
b.
The financial manager should have sound knowledge not only in finance related area but also in other areas as well.
c.
After deciding the financial requirement, the finance manager should concentrate on how, where and when to obtain finances.
d.
In forecasting financial requirements, the controller is the one who should estimate how much resources are required to acquire fixed assets and forecast the amount needed to meet the working capital requirements in future.

Question 39

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It is the difference between income and expenses
Select one:
a.
Income
b.
Wealth
c.
Revenue
d.
Profit

Question 40

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This is the process of estimating the revenue and expenses over a specified future period of time.
Select one:
a.
Projected financial statements
b.
Budgeting
c.
Cash budget
d.
Financial planning

Question 41

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The _____ method of inventory control is a method which controls expensive inventory items more closely than less expensive items.
Select one:
a.
ABC
b.
Accounts receivable
c.
Working capital management
d.
Cash management

Question 42

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Aging of receivables is a schedule of customer balances classified by the length of time they have been unpaid.
Select one:
 

Question 43

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A finance professional is using a percent change analysis of financial statements. He used the formula (Most recent value - Base period value)/Base period value. He is using a _________ type of analysis.
Select one:
a.
Vertical
b.
Diagonal
c.
Horizontal
d.
ZigZag

Question 44

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Working capital requirement are funds needed the day-to-day operations of the business.
Select one:
 

Question 45

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This is defined as the process of making decision resulting to the investment of funds in these assets which will result in maximizing the overall return on the investment of the firm.
Select one:
a.
Accounts receivable
b.
Transaction
c.
Receivable management
d.
Working capital management

Question 46

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He is in charge of all the organization's finance and accounting functions and typically reports to the chief executive officer.
Select one:
a.
Chief Financial Officer
b.
Operations Manager
c.
Treasurer
d.
Controller

Question 47

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An index analysis is an analysis of percentage financial statements where all balance sheet or income statement figures for a base year equal to 100 percent and subsequent financial statement items are expressed as percentages of their values in the base year. This is a type of
Select one:
a.
Horizontal Analysis
b.
Vertical Analysis
c.
Zigzag Analysis
d.
Diagonal Analysis

Question 48

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This is financing method in which a business owner sells accounts receivable at a discount to a third-party funding source to raise capital
Select one:
a.
Factoring
b.
Public deposits
c.
Lease financing
d.
Debentures

Question 49

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What type of budget must be made first?
Select one:
a.
Production budget
b.
Sales budget
c.
Selling and administrative expense budget
d.
Direct materials budget

Question 50

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This is the amount of money owed to a firm by customers who have bought goods or services on credit.
Select one:
a.
Cash management
b.
Working capital management
c.
ABC
d.
Accounts receivable


Question 1

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Individuals, groups or organizations that purchase your product or service for direct use in producing other products or for use in their day-to-day operations.

a.

The consumer market

b.

The industrial market

c.

The reseller market

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Question 2

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The __________ concept is more operations oriented than any other concept.

a.

Societal Concept

b.

Selling Concept

c.

Production Concept

d.

Marketing Concept

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Question 3

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People who have not yet purchased your product but are considering it

a.

Prospects

b.

Target market user

c.

 Existing Customer

d.

Consumer

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Question 4

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The French word where the word entrepreneur originates.

a.

entreprendre

b.

entreprene

c.

entreprese

d.

entrep

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Question 5

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The ability to give the "correct" answer to standard questions that do not require significant creativity

a.

Divergent thinking

b.

Survey

c.

Convergent thinking

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Question 6

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Those who have products and services similar to you and where customers who are buying something will compare your offerings and prices directly, weighing one up against the other.

a.

Supplier

b.

Customers

c.

Complementors

d.

Competitors

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Question 7

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The entire size of the market for a product at a specific time.

a.

Market Segment

b.

Target Market

c.

Market Potential

d.

Market

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Question 8

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_____________ may sell directly into the market, for example selling spare parts, but largely they need to be kept aligned to your strategy.

a.

Competitors

b.

Supplier

c.

Complementors

d.

Customers

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Question 9

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This concept was an offshoot of the marketing concept wherein an organization believes in giving back to the society by producing better products targeted towards society welfare.

a.

Selling Concept

b.

Production Concept

c.

Societal Concept

d.

Marketing Concept

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Question 10

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There are also groups and organizations who have no direct control but who will seek to promote their own agendas by influencing players within the marketplace, including regulators and retailers

a.

Substitutors

b.

Influencers

c.

Supplier

d.

Regulator

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Question 11

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Those who sell non-competing products and which generally help your sales.

a.

Competitors

b.

Customers

c.

Supplier

d.

Complementors

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Question 12

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This concept proposes that customers, be individual or organizations will not buy enough of the organization’s products unless they are persuaded to do so through selling effort

a.

Product Concept

b.

Production Concept

c.

Selling Concept

d.

Marketing Concept

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Question 13

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A set of circumstances that makes it possible to do something.

a.

Opportunity

b.

Market Potential

c.

Sales

d.

Creativity

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Question 14

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The entire concept of customer development is __________

a.

Market driven

b.

Sales driven

c.

Feedback Driven

d.

Product Driven

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Question 15

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Focuses on needs / wants of target markets & delivering value better than competitors do that preserves the consumer and society’s well-being

a.

Societal Concept

b.

Selling Concept

c.

Production Concept

d.

Marketing Concept

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Question 16

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The ____________________concept calls upon marketers to build social and ethical considerations into their marketing practices.

a.

Production Concept

b.

Marketing Concept

c.

Societal Concept

d.

Selling Concept

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Question 17

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According to a French economist, J. B. Say, an entrepreneur is a person who shifts economic resources out of an area of lower productivity into an area of higher productivity and greater yield.

a.

Entrepreneur

b.

Businessman

c.

Investor

d.

Innovator

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Question 18

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This is the development within a large co-operation of internal markets and relatively small autonomous business units producing products, services or technologies that employ the firms‟ resources in a unique way.

a.

Interpreneurship

b.

Entrepreneurship

c.

Intrapreneur

d.

Intrapreneurship

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Question 19

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Who coined the term core competency in 1989.

a.

Joseph Schumpeter

b.

J.B. Say

c.

Adam Smith and J.B. Say

d.

 Dr.C.K Prahalad and Prof. Gray Hamel

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Question 20

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The most important organization or people in the market are your ________.

a.

Customers

b.

Supplier

c.

Competitors

d.

Complementors

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Question 21

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The ability to generate ideas

a.

Idea

b.

Creativity

c.

Innovativeness

d.

Skills

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Question 22

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_________________  is created when such innovation results in new demand.

a.

Wealth

b.

Product

c.

Markets

d.

Production Method

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Question 23

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The __________ concept is the most followed ideology by top companies.

a.

Production Concept

b.

Selling Concept

c.

Societal Concept

d.

Marketing Concept

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Question 24

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The ability to implement the appropriate ideas.

a.

Innovativeness

b.

Idea

c.

Skills

d.

Creativity

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Question 25

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This concept believes in the consumer and it says the consumers are more likely to be loyal if they have more options of products or they get more benefits from the product of the company

a.

Selling Concept

b.

Marketing Concept

c.

Production Concept

d.

Product Concept

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Question 26

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This concept believes in the pull strategy and says that you need to make your brand so strong that customers themselves prefer your brand to every other competitor.

a.

Marketing Concept

b.

Societal Concept

c.

Production Concept

d.

Selling Concept

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Question 27

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The __________________ phase is crucial when beginning a new enterprise, it is important to seek new opportunities throughout the entire lifetime of any enterprise

a.

Opportunity Recognition

b.

Opportunity Assessment

c.

Opportunity Realization

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Question 28

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Potential customers are in a local, state, regional or national marketplace segment

a.

Psychographic

b.

Demographic

c.

Behavioristic

d.

Geographic

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Question 29

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The __________________  is what we call the “Get it Done” phase.

a.

Opportunity Assessment

b.

Opportunity Recognition

c.

Opportunity Realization

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Question 30

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Potential customers are identified by criteria such as age, race, religion, gender, income level, family size, occupation, education level and marital status.

a.

Psychographic

b.

Behavioristic

c.

Demographic

d.

Geographic

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Question 31

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The process of breaking down a larger target market into smaller segments with specific characteristics.

a.

Market Segmentation

b.

Market Positioning

c.

Target Market

d.

Marketing 

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Question 32

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The roadmap which predicts what core competencies to build and which related technologies are needed.

a.

Strategies

b.

Strategic Architecture

c.

Strategic Intent

d.

Core Competency

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Question 33

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This concept proposes that the success of the firm depends on the marketing efforts of the company and in delivering a better value proposition as compared to its competitors in its own target market.

a.

Selling Concept

b.

Societal Concept

c.

Marketing Concept

d.

Production Concept

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Question 34

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People in your target market who are not currently looking for a solution.

a.

Target market user

b.

Consumer

c.

Existing Customer

d.

Prospects

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Question 35

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_____________ are like competitors but their products are not the same.

a.

Substitutors

b.

Influencers

c.

Supplier

d.

Regulator

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Question 36

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The collective learning of the organization, especially how to co-ordinate the diverse production skill and integrate multiple stream of technologies.

a.

Strategies

b.

Core Competency

c.

Strategic Intent

d.

Strategic Architecture

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Question 37

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A person who is able to identify business opportunities and implement actions to maximize on the opportunities.

a.

Businessman

b.

Innovator

c.

Entrepreneur

d.

Investor

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Question 38

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People who have already purchased your product

a.

Target market user

b.

Existing Customer

c.

Prospects

d.

Consumer

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Question 39

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The needs that are explicit statements from your market that declare, “I want a product to do X.”

a.

Secondary Needs

b.

Silent Needs

c.

Stated Needs

d.

Primary Needs

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Question 40

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Question text

Points out to identifying various opportunity gaps

a.

Strategic Intent

b.

Core Competency

c.

Strategic Architecture 

d.

Strategies

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Question 41

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The degree to which a business or activity yields profit or financial gain.

a.

Income 

b.

Sales 

c.

Profitability

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Question 42

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The basic proposition of this concept is that customers will choose products and services that are widely available and are of low cost.

a.

Marketing Concept

b.

Selling Concept

c.

Production Concept

d.

Product Concept

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Question 43

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A thought process or method used to generate creative ideas by exploring many possible solutions.

a.

Survey

b.

Divergent thinking

c.

Convergent thinking

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Question 44

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Many businesses offer products based on the attitudes, beliefs and emotions of their target market.

a.

Psychographic

b.

Geographic

c.

Demographic

d.

Behavioristic

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Question 45

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This is an employed staff e.g. manager who innovates for the company and takes risks only on behalf of the employer.

a.

Intrapreneur

b.

Interprenuer

c.

Entrepreneur

d.

Employee

Feedback

Question 46

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The middlemen or intermediaries, such as wholesalers and retailers, who buy finished goods and resell them for a profit.

a.

The reseller market

b.

The consumer market

c.

The industrial market

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Question 47

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Individuals and households who buy goods for their own use or benefit.

a.

The industrial market

b.

The consumer market

c.

The reseller market

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Question 48

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Austrian economist who placed the definition of entrepreneurship an emphasis on innovation.

a.

Richard Cantillon

b.

Joseph Schumpeter

c.

Adam Smith

d.

J.B. Say

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Question 49

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This concept proposes that consumers will prefer products that have better quality, performance and features as opposed to a normal product.

a.

Product Concept

b.

Selling Concept

c.

Marketing Concept

d.

Production Concept

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Question 50

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A general view, examination, or description of someone or something.

a.

Convergent thinking

b.

Divergent thinking

c.

Survey

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Question 1

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Ang tinuturing na pinakamababang na uri ng wika

a.

Lalawiganin

b.

Balbal

c.

kolokyal

d.

Pambansa

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Question 2

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Ang pagbasa ay isang kakayahang kumilala at umunawa ng mga nakalimbag na simbolo ng talasalitaan ng mga batang mag-aaral sa pagsasalita.

a.

Urquhart at Wieir (1998)

b.

Baltazar (1977)

c.

Terrado (2000)

d.

Jonhson (1990)

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Question 3

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Layunin nitong maglarawan ayon sa pansariling pananaw o saloobin

a.

 Deskripsyong Lalawiganin

b.

Deskripsyong Pambansa

c.

Deskripsyong Teknikal

d.

Deskripsyong Impresyunistiko

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Naisasagawa ito sa literal at maasosasyong pamamaraan.

a.

Persepsyon

b.

Pag-unawa

c.

Kolaborasyon

d.

Reaksyon

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Ang Pagbasa ay isang proseso ng pagtanggap, pag-analisa at pag-interpreta ng mga inpormasyon nakasulat sa pamamagitan ng nakalimbag na midyum.

a.

Urquhart at Wieir(1998)

b.

Terrado, (2000)

c.

Jonhson(1990)

d.

Lahat ng nabanggit

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Malinaw na naglalahad ng mga bagay-bagay upang malinaw na maibahagi anhg impormasyong nararapat na malaman ng mambabasa

a.

TEKSTONG ARGUMENTATIBO

b.

TEKSTONG PERSUWEYSIB

c.

TEKSTONG NARATIBO

d.

TEKSTONG IMPORMATIBO

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Question 7

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Ito ay ang pakikibagay ng wika sa taong gumagamit nito. Kadalasan napaiikli ang mga salita ngunit napagkakasunduan ang pagpapaikli nito.


a.

Pambansa

b.

Lalawiganin

c.

Kolokyal

d.

Pampanitikan

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Question 8

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Mahalagang bigyan pansin din ang mga lugar na karaniwan sa mambabasa, sapagkat tumutulong ito sa pagbibigay ng linaw sa paksa.

a.

Tagpuan

b.

Himig

c.

Banghay

d.

Tauhan

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Question 9

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Layunin nito na maglarawan sa detalyadong pamamaraan

a.

Deskripsyong Teknikal

b.

Deskripsyong Pambansa

c.

Deskripsyong Lalawiganin

d.

Deskripsyong Impresyunistiko

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Question 10

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Ang pagbasa ay kasangkapan sa pagkatuto ng mga kabatiran ukol sa iba’t ibang larangan ng pamumuhay. Sinsabing 90% na natutunan ng isang indibidwal ay mula sa kanyang kakayahang bumasa.

a.

Urquhart at Wieir(1998)

b.

Jonhson(1990)

c.

Baltazar(1977)

d.

Terrado, (2000)

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Question 11

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Balangkas o istruktura , sistemang kronolohikay ng isang salaysay

a.

Tagpuan

b.

Tauhan

c.

Himig

d.

Banghay

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Question 12

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Inilarawan ni Badayos (1999) ang apat na hakbang sa pagbasa.

a.

ito ay proseso ng pag-iisip. utak ang gingamit dito hindi ang mga mata. sinasabi na ang ay ginagamit lamang sa pagbabasa habang ang utak ang nagpoproseso ng mensahe ng binasa

b.

Lahat ng nabanggit

c.

Ang pagbabasa ay walang kaningiang imposible para hindi ito maisagawa ng isang mambabasa

d.

ang apektib na mambabasa ay isang interaktibong mambabasa, kung ang mambabasa ay nakagagawa ng interaksyon sa awtor, sa teksto at sa kanyang sarili mismo

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Question 13

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Ayon kay __________ ang karunungan ay lalong mapapalawak sa pamamagitan ng pag-eehersisyo ng utak, sa sa pagbasa at pagsulat. Ito ang mabisang paraan din upang higit na tumalas ang memorya ng isang tao.

a.

 Yonson (2001)

b.

Urquhart at Wieir (1998)

c.

Baltazar (1977)

d.

Jonhson (1990)

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Question 14

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Bahagi ng teksto kung saan ipinakikila ng mannunulat ang pangunahing tauhan.

a.

Simula

b.

kasukdulan

c.

kakalasan

d.

Saglit na kasiglahan

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Question 15

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Wikang gamit sa isang pook o lipon ng mga tao, tinatawag itong dayalekto sa kasalukuyan

a.

Pampanitikan

b.

kolokyal

c.

Lalawiganin

d.

Pambansa

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Question 16

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Ang tinaguriang “ Ama ng Pagbasa”

a.

Radleigh Goodman

b.

Ali Baltazar

c.

Hades Badayos

d.

William S. Gray

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Question 17

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Pagsasama-sama at pag-uugnay ng binasang teksto sa karanasan ng mambabasa.

a.

Persepsyon

b.

Asimilasyon

c.

Reaksyon

d.

Kolaborasyon

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Question 18

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Ang nagbibigay buhay o tagaganap sa loob ng isang salaysay

a.

Himig

b.

Banghay

c.

Tagpuan

d.

Tauhan

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Question 19

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Nagbibigay ng tiyak na impormasyon kaugnay sa isang tao, bagay, lugar o pangyayari.

a.

TEKSTONG IMPORMATIBO

b.

 TEKSTONG NARATIBO

c.

TEKSTONG PERSUWEYSIB

d.

TEKSTONG ARGUMENTATIBO

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Question 20

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Ito ay kakayahan sa pagbigkas ng salita at pagkilala ng mga nakalimbag na simbolo,

a.

Pag-unawa

b.

Kolaborasyon

c.

Persepsyon

d.

Reaksyon

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Question 21

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Uri ng wikang sinasalita sa paaralan, tanggapan ng pamahalaan, sa pagsulat ng kontitusyon, sa simbahan, sa mga pagpupulong sa kongreso at senado at maging sa Palasyo ng Malacañang.

a.

kolokyal

b.

Pambansa

c.

Pampanitikan

d.

Lalawiganin

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Question 22

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Ang nag-aanalisa ng mga salita sa pamamagitan ng pag-uugnay ng letra sa kani-kanilang tunog.


a.

Temporal Lobe

b.

Frontal Lobe

c.

Occipital Lobe

d.

Parietal Lobe

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Question 23

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Ang komokontrol sa pagsasalita, pagrarason,pagpapaplano at kamalayan

a.

Frontal Lobe

b.

Occipital Lobe

c.

Parietal Lobe

d.

Temporal Lobe

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Question 24

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Ayon sa pag-aaral ni _________ ang kaliwang bahagi ng utak ay siyang nagsasagawa ng pagpoproseso kaugnay sa wika at pagbasa

a.

Shsywitz(2003)

b.

Baltazar(1977)

c.

Urquhart at Wieir(1998)

d.

Jonhson(1990)

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Question 25

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Wikang sinasalita sa ordinaryong pakikipag-komunikasyon.

a.

Teknikal

b.

Informal

c.

Operasyonal

d.

Manwal

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Question 26

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Itinuturing na pinakamataas na antas ng wika, karaniwan itong gamit sa pakikipagtalastasan ng mga propesyunal o mga nakapag-aral. gayundin ang mga nagpakadalubhasa sap ag-aaral ng wika.

a.

Manwal

b.

Teknikal

c.

Formal

d.

Operasyonal

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Question 27

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Ipinaliwanag ni ________ ito ay isang masalimuot na kompleks na nangagailangan ng konyus at di-konyus na paggamit ng mga estratehiya o kasanayan upang makabuo ng kahulugang ninanais ng ihatid ng manunnulat sa mambabasa

a.

Lahat ng nabanggit

b.

Jonhson(1990)

c.

Urquhart at Wieir(1998)

d.

Terrado, (2000)

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Question 28

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Isa sa pinakamahalang bahagi , ito ang komokontrol sa pagkilala sa mga letra

a.

Frontal Lobe

b.

Temporal Lobe

c.

Occipital Lobe

d.

Parietal Lobe

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Question 29

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Naglalarawan at nagpapaliwanag ng mga bagay o pangyayari naganap na masasalamin ang opinyon at paniniwala ng may akda

a.

TEKSTONG PERSUWEYSIB

b.

TEKSTONG ARGUMENTATIBO

c.

TEKSTONG NARATIBO

d.

TEKSTONG IMPORMATIBO

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Question 30

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Ang gamit sa pang-araw-araw na pakikipagtalastasan layunin nitong ang magkuwento

a.

TEKSTONG PERSUWEYSIB

b.

TEKSTONG IMPORMATIBO

c.

TEKSTONG NARATIBO

d.

TEKSTONG ARGUMENTATIBO

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Question 31

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Dalawang Anyo ng Tekstong Deskriptibo

a.

Formal at lalawiganin

b.

Teknikal at Informal

c.

Karaniwan at Masining

d.

Maliwang at Masaya

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Question 32

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tumutukoy sa damdaming nais ibahagi ng manunulat

a.

Himig

b.

Tauhan

c.

Banghay

d.

Tagpuan

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Question 33

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Tekstong nakatuon sa pagsasalaysay ng isang pangyayari sa kawili-wiling paraan, tila nagkukwento tungkol sa tiyak na pagkakasunod-sunod na pangyayari.

a.

TEKSTONG IMPORMATIBO

b.

TEKSTONG PERSUWEYSIB

c.

TEKSTONG NARATIBO

d.

TEKSTONG ARGUMENTATIBO

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Question 34

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Karaniwan itong sumasagot sa tanong na ano, sino at paano, patungkol sa paksa

a.

TEKSTONG NARATIBO

b.

 TEKSTONG PERSUWEYSIB

c.

TEKSTONG IMPORMATIBO

d.

TEKSTONG ARGUMENTATIBO

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Question 35

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isang kognitibong proseso ng pag-unawa sa mensaheng nais nakalimbag o anumang pasulat na wika.

a.

PAGSULAT

b.

PAKIKINIG

c.

PAGSASALITA

d.

PAGBASA

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Question 36

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“Ang pagbabasa ay isang psycholinguistic game, sapagkat ang mambabasa ay bumubuong muli ng isang kaisipan o mensahe hango sa kanyang tekstong binasa”

a.

Goodman

b.

Jonhson

c.

Shsywitz

d.

Baltazar

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Question 37

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Ang komokontrol sa berbal na memorya ng mambabasa

a.

Temporal Lobe

b.

Occipital Lobe

c.

Frontal Lobe

d.

Parietal Lobe

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Question 38

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Pinaka sentro ng lahat ng organ sa katawan ng tao, dito pinoproseso ang mga bagay na may kaugnayan sa ginagawa ng tao isa na rito ang Pagbasa

a.

Kamay

b.

Mata

c.

Utak

d.

Ulo

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Question 39

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Wikang ginagamit sa mga akdang pampanitikan upang maging masining, malikhain, matalinghaga ang paglalahad o pagpapahayag.

a.

kolokyal

b.

Pambansa

c.

Lalawiganin

d.

Pampanitikan

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Question 40

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Ang bahagi ng teksto kung saan ipinakikita ng manunulatang magandang kapalaran ng tauhan.

a.

Simula

b.

kakalasan

c.

Saglit na kasiglahan

d.

kasukdulan

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Question 1

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10. This is the more traditional format of a resume and is flexible and can be used for applicants with any level of experience.

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14. As for overseas employment of Filipinos, foreign employers are not allowed to directly hire Philippine nationals except through board and entities authorized by the .

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5. An employee needs to give respect to the company. That means honesty and integrity.

Select one:
 

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7. Having a solid education section doesn’t help you to display the foundation of your knowledge and expertise.

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15. Under whose regime the Labor Code of the Philippines does took effect?

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5. He states that "what was once understood as the work ethic—not just hard work but also a set of accompanying virtues, whose crucial role in the development and sustaining of free markets too few now recall".

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8. A written statement of your educational and work experience.

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6. He revised the notion of work ethic as a means of management control that delude workers about the actual reality for accumulated advantage, which is a form of avarice.

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1. Defined as “the place where work immersion of students is done".

Question 10

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Choose five (5) job interview skills that a person should have. 

Select one or more:
a.

Use appropriate language 

b.

Take care to answer the questions

c.

Don't talk too much 

d.

Dress for the job or company 

e.

Don't be too familiar

f.

Appear desperate

g.

Don't ask questions

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9. Put your portfolio on a web site if possible as it is so easy to access.

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4. A belief that work, hard work and diligence has a moral benefit and an inherent ability, virtue or value to strengthen character.

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9. It is a set of pictures by someone, or photographs of examples of their work, which they use when entering competitions or applying for work.

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3. The maximum age for employment is 18 years old.

Select one:
 

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1. Workplace safety is important.

Select one:
 

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12. The  governs employment practices and labor relations in the Philippines.

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11.  can also include budget sheets, idea pitches and marketing materials.

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13. When Labor Code of the Philippines was promulgated?

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2. A behavior of a single individual or a group that has led to a systematic lack of productivity, reliability, accountability and a growing sphere of unprofessional/unhealthy relationships.

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2. Functional format is flexible and can be used for applicants with any level of experience.

Question 21

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What should the portfolio include? Choose at least 5 from the choices.

Select one or more:
a.

A profile or personal statement

b.

Your key achievements and skills



    c.

    Examples of your work with good documentation

    d.

    Include a uniform examples of work you have done

    e.

    Curriculum Vitae

    f.

    Your drafts for your report

    g.

    An index of the contents

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    Question 22

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    10. If you are putting on a performance to demonstrate your ability, overconfidence is bad.

    Question 23

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    1. On job interview, it is important to be aware of any inappropriate slang words or references to age, race, religion, politics or sexual orientation—these topics could send you out the door very quickly.

    Question 24

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    2. The employer have the right to terminate an employee.

    Select one:
     

    Question 25

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    4. Absenteeism increases when effective safety programs are introduced.

    Select one:
     

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    Question 26

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    3. Place the best and most relevant work first and start and finish with strong pieces of work on your portfolio.

    Question 27

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    5. During interview, asking question is not wrong because it also gives you the opportunity to find out if this is the right place for you.


    Question 28

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    6. Only include your GPA below 3.0, round up to the first decimal place, and use this format: GPA: 3.5/4.0.

    Question 29

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    8. A portfolio is a set of pictures by someone, or photographs of examples of their work, which they use when entering competitions or applying for work.

    Question 30

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    3. The date where Labor Code of the Philippines took effect.

    Question 31

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    7. The normal hours of work of any employee.

    Question 32

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    4. Negative work ethic is a behavior of a single individual or a group that has led to a systematic lack of productivity, reliability, accountability and a growing sphere of unprofessional/unhealthy relationships.


    Question 1

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    Holds the mask to the face underwater.

    a.

    Nose Pocket

    b.

    Strap

    c.

    Mask Skirt 

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    Question 2

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    An English merchant seaman, developed the first self-contained diving gear that used compressed oxygen and not compressed air.

    a.

    Augustus Siebe

    b.

    Henry A. Fleuss

    c.

    William James

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    Question 3

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    This fins have a single, full blade while the split fin is “semiparted ” in the web, separating the blade into two long, stiff blades

    a.

    paddle-bladed fins 

    b.

    full-foot fins 

    c.

    adjustable fins

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    Question 4

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    Acts as structural support and it defines shape of boat.

    a.

    Seat

    b.

    Gunwale

    c.

    Thwart

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    Question 5

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    This type of kayaking or canoeing iswhere the canoe or kayak is fitted with a sail.

    a.

    Sailing

    b.

    Surf kayaking

    c.

    Flatwater

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    Question 6

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    This is a special valve on top of the tube that completely stops water (and air) from entering the tube when a wave comes or when diving underwater

    a.

    dry valve

    b.

    splash guard

    c.

    purge valve

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    Question 7

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    This aquatic activity originated from the Carib word ‘kenu’ which means dugout.

    a.

    Canoeing 

    b.

    Enhance Cooling

    c.

    Snorkeling

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    Question 8

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    Like water skiing on a surfboard. 

    a.

    Wakesurfing

    b.

    Big-wave surfing

    c.

    Bodysurfing

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    Question 9

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    The width of the boat and is measured at the widest part of the canoe or kayak.

    a.

    Bottom Shape

    b.

    Length

    c.

    Beam

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    Question 10

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    These waves are the result of an abrupt change in seabed topography.

    a.

    Surging waves

    b.

    Rolling waves

    c.

    Dumping waves

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    Question 11

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    Allow surfers greater balance than any other kind of surfboard.

    a.

    Big-wave surfing

    b.

    Longboards

    c.

    Shortboards

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    Question 12

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    The art and science of riding down a breaking wave without a board.

    a.

    Bodysurfing

    b.

    Wakesurfing

    c.

    Big-wave surfing

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    Question 13

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    The pressure exerted by the water at equilibrium due to the force of gravity.

    a.

    Snorkeling

    b.

    Hydrostatic Pressure

    c.

    Enhance Cooling

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    Question 14

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    Disabilities do not hinder anyone from scuba diving.

    a.

    True

    b.

    False

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    Question 15

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    They provide the the necessary locomotion to propel effortlessly in the water.

    a.

    paddle-bladed fins 

    b.

    adjustable fins

    c.

    full-foot fins

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    Question 16

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    This helps prevent the mask from fogging up

    a.

    Mask Defogger

    b.

    Swimming Cap

    c.

    Skin Protection

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    Question 17

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    A relaxing canoeing or kayaking where you can take a gentle paddle down a calm river, ocean, or lake to do sightseeing.

    a.

    Sailing

    b.

    Flatwater

    c.

    Surf kayaking

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    Question 18

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    He built the “diving engine,” which was an underwater oak cylinder supplied with compressed air from the surface.

    a.

    Edmund Halley

    b.

    John Lethbridge

    c.

    Charles Anthony Deane

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    Question 19

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    A diving method where a diver uses a regulator as the breathing apparatus and a tank with compressed air which enables the diver to breathe normally underwater

    a.

    Snorkeling

    b.

    Kayak 

    c.

    Scuba Diving

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    Question 20

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    This is applied to dry surfboards to help surfers “stick.”

    a.

    Wetsuits

    b.

    Surf wax

    c.

    Surfboards

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    Question 21

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    This is a small valve just lower than the mouth that empties the collected water that comes down the tube when one blows it out.

    a.

    dry valve

    b.

    splash guard

    c.

    purge valve

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    Question 22

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    Surfing very, very big waves.

    a.

    Bodysurfing

    b.

    Wakesurfing

    c.

    Big-wave surfing

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    Question 23

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    This aquatic activity involves peeking through life underneath water by swimming with the aid of a snorkel and mask

    a.

    Kayak 

    b.

    Snorkeling

    c.

    SCUBA Diving 

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    Question 24

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    The sides curve outward (flares out) making the beam wider.

    a.

    Flared sides

    b.

    Tumblehome design

    c.

    Straight sides

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    Question 25

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    A piece of equipment that makes it possible to breathe at the surface while the face is the submerged in water.

    a.

    Strap

    b.

    Snorkel 

    c.

    Mask

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    Question 26

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    Cushions and protects the nose. Some masks have the purge valve, a little flap valve located at the bottom of nose pocket that helps in removing the water has entered the masks.

    a.

    Mask Skirt 

    b.

    Strap

    c.

    Nose Pocket

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    Question 27

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    These waves break in a stable pattern.

    a.

    Surging waves

    b.

    Dumping waves

    c.

    Rolling waves

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    Question 28

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    Allow surfers for greater maneuverability.

    a.

    Big-wave surfing

    b.

    Shortboards

    c.

    Longboards

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    Question 29

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    Transfers heat away from the body much quickly than air given in the same temperature. 

    a.

    Enhance Cooling

    b.

    Hydrostatic Pressure

    c.

    Aquatics

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    Question 30

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    Top half of the kayak.

    a.

    Hatch

    b.

    Deck

    c.

    Footbrace

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    Question 31

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    A soft flexible material that seats the mask around the face.

    a.

    Nose Pocket

    b.

    Strap

    c.

    Mask Skirt 

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    Question 32

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    It is the upward force of the water on an object.

    a.

    Enhance Cooling

    b.

    Aquatics

    c.

    Hydrostatic Pressure

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    Question 33

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    He innovated a closed diving suit to complete the diving helmet.

    a.

    William James

    b.

    Augustus Siebe

    c.

    Henry A. Fleuss

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    Question 34

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    A snorkeling equipment which serves as the viewing device in appreciating the world beneath the water

    a.

    Strap

    b.

    Snorkel 

    c.

    Mask

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    Question 35

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    This type of kayaking is where the kayak is typically fitted with a fin, rather like a surfboard.

    a.

    Surf kayaking

    b.

    Flatwater

    c.

    Marathon

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    Question 36

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    He developed an improved diving bell.

    a.

    John Lethbridge

    b.

    Charles Anthony Deane

    c.

    Edmund Halley

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    Question 37

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    This prevents splashed water and spray from easily entering the tube.

    a.

    purge valve

    b.

    splash guard

    c.

    dry valve

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    Question 38

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    Crossbars reinforcing the canoe and prevents sides from pulling apart under load.

    a.

    Thwart

    b.

    Seat

    c.

    Gunwale

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    Question 39

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    This kind of snorkel has the most basic part, the solid tube and the mouthpiece. Sometimes, this can be bent to a specific shape.

    a.

    Modern snorkel

    b.

    Snorkel with a flexible tube

    c.

    Classic snorkel

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    Question 40

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    A beam in the center of a canoe that allows the canoe to rest on a person’s shoulder when portaging

    a.

    Stern

    b.

    Yoke 

    c.

    Gunwale

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    Question 1

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    Informal sector those who are part of the informal sector lack of the requirements  and license from the government.

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    Question 2

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    Virtue is the ability of the community to get back on its feet after a calamity and continue with its existence.

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    Improvement need foresight and progressive thinking. 

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    Capacity-building measures are not a simple one-step process.

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    Question 5

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     Engagement – refers to the process of working collaboratively with and through groups of people affiliated by geographic proximity; special interest, or similar situations to address issues affecting the well being of those people. 

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    Progress, on the other hand, is long-term as it is targeted to a forward-thinking mindset that anticipates future events and repercussions

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    As the basic political unit, the barangay serves as the primary planning and implementing unit of government policies, plans, programs, projects, and activities in the community, and as a forum wherein the collective views of the people may be expressed, crystallized and considered, and where disputes may be amicably settled. 

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    Question 8

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    Conflict Theory - explains that conflict between the holders of power and the disenfranchised are the drivers of social change and conflict is a necessary characteristic in social relations. 

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    Question 9

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    Due to the volume of people, buildings and economic centers, schools, and leisure areas very near factories , office spaces, and markets. 

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    Question 10

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    Symbolic interactionism takes itself away from the other theories and perspectives as it does not look into primary social institution as the main variable of study but rather looks into individuals, their histories, and the perspectives. 

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    Evolutionary Theory - explains that society follows an evolutionary development from a simple commune and then moves toward more complex systems.

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    Question 12

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    Financial resources should always be supported by documents to prove that funds are spent on priorities.

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    Question 13

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    Solidarity – refers to the idea of unity or feeling of agreement among individuals with common interest. 

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    Question 14

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     The community jurisdiction of the new Barangay shall be property identified by my and bounds or by more or less permanent natural boundaries. The territory need to meet the wills of the contiguous if it comprises two (2) or more islands. 

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    Question 15

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    Community challenges the community to be creative and finds new ways of planning, implementing, and sustaining growth. 

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    Question 16

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     Field researchers spend ample time to immerse themselves in their subject  community.

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    Question 17

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    Formal sector  is composed of establishments , business, and other enterprises that are legal based on their compliance to government requirements such as license. 

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    Question 18

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    The Philippine economy is regarded as one of the most resilient in Asia. 

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    Question 19

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    Factors affecting social change are the structures and institutions that all contribute to the ongoing calibration of norms in our society.

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    Question 20

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    Adaptability communities that are objective and reasonable have a clearer picture of their existence. 

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    Question 21

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    Our individual choices will have direct and indirect effects to the overall community narrative. 

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    Question 22

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    Transitivity- Choices are not equal in terms of value to the individual, therefore, these options can be sorted depending on relative value or importance. 

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    Question 23

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    Urban communities are located in the countryside. The houses are far from each other and the density of people living here is the least from the three. 

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    Question 24

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    Durkheim establishes that what is true to an individual may not be used as a generalization in describing the society he or she is in. 

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    Question 25

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    Alienation from process  - A worker simply does not directly gain from the good or service produced. 

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    Question 26

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    Droughts, floods, heat waves, earthquakes, forest fires, and tsunamis are just a few of the challenges from Mother Nature that our communities face. 

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    Question 27

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    Vigilance is more than just being awake and alert to avoid dangers of problems. In community development, vigilance is the sustained assessment of not just threats or danger but of progressive ideas and solutions. 

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    Question 28

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    Livelihoods are mostly from farming and livestock raising. 

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    Question 29

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    Community engagement in the subject of research is a very effective way of overcoming bias and ethnocentrism or the strong preference of one's norm over the other that sullies the integrity of the research result. 

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    Question 30

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    The Rational Choice Theory also has other assumptions that will shed more light on the motivations that influence the behavior of an individual or a group in a shared environment.

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    Question 31

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     Citizenship- characterizes the relationship between a citizen and a political community. This is indicated by citizen’s involvement in state affairs, with respect to its economic and social processes, institutions, laws, rights, and responsibilities.

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    Question 32

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    After the World War II, globalization was in as the free market started taking over the world. People and governments opened up for the international community. 

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    Question 33

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    Community development is reflective, meaning, all we input as people in the community will be reflected back to us. In the same manner as the old saying "trash in, trash out," we hold the choice in what we input and accept to be real. 

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    Question 34

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    Access to community  and markets are farther than in urban areas. The buildings are low- to mid-rise and people live in houses with large living spaces and usually with yards. 

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    Question 35

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    Suburban communities are settlements that are highly congested because of the dense population that can reach, million within a limited space.

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    Question 36

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    Social status is all about the dynamic of individual identity relative to its environment.

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    Question 37

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    Planning is the next step in realizing ideas from a blueprint. It needs not only the people who are directly affected but also experts, industry leaders, and scholars who can contribute their knowledge and experience to the planning. 

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    Question 38

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    Conflict is more deliberate, and more violent coercive tactics may be employed by the actor. 

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    Question 39

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     Sustainability is the goal that each program aspires to reach. 

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    Question 40

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    Community engagement is all about connecting to the community and its people. 

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    Question 41

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    Some people are living in high- rise buildings because of the limited available space in the area. 

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    Question 42

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    Cooperation, on one hand, provides the necessary communal spirit that motivates people to contribute and volunteer

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    Question 43

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    There shall be in each barangay a Punong Barangay, seven (7) Sangguniang Barangay members, the Sangguniang Kabataan chairman, a Barangay Secretary, and a Barangay treasurer. 

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    The area we live is another classification of communities. Scholars see the value of looking into the different geographic locations of where human settlements are, to categorize communities by virtue of population, space, and accessibility. 

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    Question 45

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     Conflict Theory  - explains that the set roles and statuses hold social balance and therefore, any change in the scheme will have repercussions on the functions of other roles and statuses.

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    Accountability can be pursued even without full oversight, provided that it does not effect negative impact on members of a minority or a set of priorities such as the environment. 

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    The Alternative Learning System (ALS) is the primary example of how the state can intercede and solve problems on unemployment. 

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    Question 48

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    Change is important for ideas to flourish and take root.

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    Question 49

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    For process dynamics, the actors are the individuals, civil society groups, pressure groups, and movements who all contribute to the communities in the creation of meaning. In the interface of these actors, we create networks that provide cohesion and order to our social environment. 

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    Question 50

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    Suburban areas are mostly filled with houses, subdivisions, and private estates rather than factories and shops

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    Business Laws and Regulation

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